PPL/A

Private Pilot Licence - Aeroplane

Demo: PPL/A

Real exam questions to try for free — no registration needed.

What are the minimum distances to clouds for a VFR flight in airspace "B"?

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The correct answer is: Horizontally 1,500 m, vertically 300 m. In airspace B, VFR flights must keep at least 1,500 m horizontally and 300 m vertically from clouds. The other options are either too low or incorrect values.

What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "C" below FL 100 for an aircraft operating under VFR?

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The correct answer is 5 km, as VFR flights in airspace C below FL 100 require at least 5 km visibility. 8 km and 10 km are too high, 1.5 km is too low and only applies in special cases like aerodrome circuits.

The term "ceiling" is defined as the...

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The correct answer is: height of the base of the lowest layer of clouds covering more than half of the sky below 20,000 ft AGL. Only this defines ceiling as height above ground/water and the lowest cloud layer. Others refer to altitude, wrong heights, or the highest layer, which is incorrect.

Being intercepted by a military aircraft at daytime, what is the meaning of the following signal: Alternating movement of the ailerons, normally left of the intercepted aircraft, followed by a smooth turn to the left?

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The signal means 'Follow me'. A military aircraft uses this to instruct you to follow it. The other options are incorrect because the signal does not mean to leave the airspace, prepare for a landing, or continue on your heading.

Being intercepted by a military aircraft at daytime, what is the meaning of the following signal: A sudden heading change of 90 degrees or more and a pull-up of the aircraft without crossing the track of the intercepted aircraft?

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The signal means you may continue your flight. The military aircraft indicates that no further action is needed. The other answers are incorrect because they refer to leaving the airspace, preparing for a landing, or following the interceptor, which this signal does not mean.

During a flight at FL 80, the altimeter setting has to be...

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Flight levels (FL) are always referenced to the standard setting of 1013.25 hPa. Local QNH and QFE are used for altitude above sea level or airfield, not for flight levels. 1030.25 hPa is not a standard value.

What is the purpose of the semi-circular rule?

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The semi-circular rule aims to avoid collisions by assigning different altitudes to aircraft flying in opposite directions, reducing the chance of head-on encounters at the same altitude. The other options refer to unrelated procedures or are incorrect.

A transponder with the ability to send the current pressure level is a...

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A mode C or S transponder can transmit the current pressure altitude. Mode A only sends a code, not altitude. A pressure-decoder is not a transponder. 'Transponder approved for airspace B' is not a technical term.

Which transponder code indicates a loss of radio communication?

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Transponder code 7600 indicates a loss of radio communication. 7000 is for VFR flights, 2000 is used for uncontrolled flights in some countries, and 7700 is for emergencies. Only 7600 signals radio failure.

Which transponder code has to be set unrequested during an emergency?

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Transponder code 7700 is used for emergencies. 7600 is for radio failure, 7500 for hijacking, and 7000 for standard VFR flights. Only 7700 immediately alerts all stations to an emergency.

Air traffic control service is conducted by which services?

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Aerodrome control (TWR), approach control (APP), and area control (ACC) provide air traffic control. The other services only give information, advice, or alerts, but do not control traffic.

Which answer is correct with regard to separation in airspace "E"?

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Correct: VFR traffic is not separated from any other traffic. In airspace E, VFR flights are not separated from either VFR or IFR flights. The other options are incorrect because VFR traffic is generally not separated in this airspace.

Which air traffic services can be expected within a FIR (flight information region)?

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Within a FIR, flight information service (FIS) and alerting service (ALR) are provided. ATC is not always available in FIR, and AIS/SAR are not air traffic services in this context. FIS gives pilots information, ALR alerts rescue services in emergencies.

A pilot can contact FIS (flight information service)...

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A pilot can contact FIS during flight only via radio communication. Telephone, internet, or personal visit are not possible or intended for in-flight communication with FIS.

What is the meaning of the abbreviation "AIREP"?

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The correct answer is 'Aircraft report' because AIREP is a report sent by a pilot during flight. The other options are incorrect: they refer to general information, instrument requirements, or automatic identification, which are not the purpose of an AIREP.

What information is provided in the general part (GEN) of the AIP?

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The general part (GEN) of the AIP provides basic info such as map icons, list of radio nav aids, sunrise/sunset times, and fees. The other options refer to content from other AIP sections, like warnings, airfields, or access rules.

Which are the different parts of the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)?

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The AIP consists of GEN (General), ENR (Enroute), and AD (Aerodromes). The other options are incorrect because they either omit an official part or include wrong terms like AGA, COM, MET, or RAC.

What information is provided in the part "AD" of the AIP?

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The 'AD' part of the AIP provides the table of content, classification of airfields with maps, approach charts, and taxi charts. The other options refer to general info, warnings, or access rules, which are found in other AIP sections.

The shown NOTAM is valid until... A1024/13 A) LOWW B) 1305211200 C) 1305211400 E) STOCKERAU VOR STO 113.00 UNSERVICEABLE.

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The correct answer is '21/05/2013 14:00 UTC.' because field C) 1305211400 shows the end date and time in YYMMDDhhmm (year, month, day, hour, minute UTC). The other options have the wrong year, month, or time.

The term "runway" is defined as a...

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The correct answer is: a rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft. This matches the official definition. The other options are incorrect because they mention the wrong shape, include water aerodromes, or refer only to helicopters.

What does the reported runway condition "WET" mean?

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The correct answer is: The surface of the runway is soaked, but there are no significant patches of standing water. 'WET' means the runway is wet but not flooded. The other options describe flooding, visible water patches, or a completely dry runway, which are incorrect.

What does "WATER PATCHES" mean regarding the reported runway condition?

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The correct answer is: Patches of standing water are visible. This means there are visible pools of water on the runway. The other options are incorrect because they describe only wetness, flooding of most of the surface, or a completely dry runway.

What is the meaning of a flashing red light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to an aircraft in flight?

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A flashing red light means the airport is unsafe, do not land. The other answers are incorrect because they suggest landing clearance, returning for landing, or giving way, which do not apply to this signal.

What is the meaning of a flashing green light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to an aircraft in flight?

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A flashing green light means return for landing, but actual landing clearance will be given later with a steady green. The other answers are incorrect: they either indicate immediate clearance, unsafe airport, or just circling, which is not correct.

What is the meaning of a steady green light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to an aircraft in flight?

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A steady green light to an aircraft in flight means 'Cleared to land'. This signal authorizes landing. The other options are incorrect as they refer to waiting, returning, or not landing, which is not the case here.

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