Demo: PPL/H

The correct answer is 'Carburettor fire', as fuel in the carburettor can ignite during engine start. Sparking, cable fire, and smoke emission are less typical dangers at this stage.

An engine that has been on fire must not be restarted because the risk of reignition is too high. The other answers are incorrect: safe altitude, taxiing, or carburettor fire do not eliminate the main danger after an engine fire.

Switching off the heating and ventilating system is correct, as these can bring smoke into the cockpit. The other actions do not stop smoke entry or are not immediately relevant in this situation.

Turning off the master switch cuts the electrical power, stopping the source of the fire. Closing the fuel valve, opening windows, or cabin ventilation do not address the electrical fire directly.

Turning off the master switch immediately cuts electrical power, stopping the source of an electrical fire. Turning off the heat, shutting down the engine, or using the fire extinguisher do not directly remove the electrical source and are not the first step.

Turning off the heat stops smoke or fumes from entering the cabin from the engine compartment. The other actions are not the first recommended step, as they do not immediately prevent smoke from entering or directly address the hazard.

The correct answer is: a vertical or horizontal change of wind speed and wind direction. Wind shear means sudden changes in wind speed or direction. The other options describe specific phenomena, slow changes, or require a certain speed change, which is not accurate.

Thunderstorms are often linked to strong wind shear, both horizontal and vertical, due to intense updrafts, downdrafts, and sudden changes in wind direction and speed. The other weather phenomena usually do not cause significant wind shear.

Wind shear often occurs in the presence of an inversion, as wind speed and direction can change rapidly with height. Passing a warm front, calm wind in cold weather, or summer days with calm winds are less likely to cause wind shear.

With decreasing headwind, IAS drops and lift decreases, causing the approach path to become lower and IAS to decrease. The other answers are incorrect because they suggest either an increase in IAS or a higher path, which does not happen in this scenario.

With increasing headwind, lift increases, so the aircraft climbs above the approach path and IAS increases. The other answers are wrong because they suggest a lower path or decreasing IAS, which does not happen with increasing headwind.

With decreasing tailwind, the headwind component increases. This causes IAS to increase and the aircraft to rise above the approach path. So: Path is higher, IAS increases. The other answers are incorrect because they suggest a lower path or decreasing IAS, which is not correct in this scenario.

With decreasing headwind, true airspeed (TAS) drops and lift decreases, so the aeroplane flies below the estimated climb path. The other answers are wrong: TAS does not increase, GS does not decrease, and the aircraft does not fly above the climb path.

The correct answer is to avoid take-off and landing during heavy showers or thunderstorms, as wind shear is often associated with these conditions. The other options mention weather phenomena but are not specifically relevant to wind shear.

Wake turbulence starts as soon as the aircraft lifts off with the front gear, because this is when lift is first generated by the wings. It does not start just by accelerating or reaching a certain altitude. Lifting off with the main gear is too late.

Wake turbulence is strongest when flying at low speeds because lift is greatest and wingtip vortices are most intense. At high speeds or altitudes, less lift is needed, so wake turbulence is weaker.

Correct: Wake turbulence on or near the runway. With only slight crosswind, wake turbulence drifts slowly and can remain close to the runway, posing a hazard. The other options describe effects that occur with stronger winds or are incorrect for light crosswind.

The correct answer is 'emergency landing' because it means a landing forced by danger or technical failure. 'Precautionary landing' is planned for safety, 'urgent landing' is not an official term, and 'field or out landing' refers only to landings outside airfields, not necessarily forced.

Correct: conducted in an attempt to sustain flight safety. A precautionary landing is made to avoid potential danger. The other options refer to forced landings, engine failure, or technical details not specific to precautionary landings.

Life vests should be inflated after leaving the aircraft, because inflating them inside can hinder evacuation or block exits. Inflating before or during exit can cause problems. After leaving, it is safe to inflate the vest.

The correct answer is 'Unexpected changes in weather and turbulence' because mountains can cause rapid weather changes and strong turbulence. The other options refer to specific icing or technical issues not unique to mountain flying.

When performing a slope landing, special attention must be paid to the helicopter slipping, as it can easily slide sideways on an incline. The main rotor's rotation, faulty navigation lights, or skid width are not critical in this context.

The Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) must be contacted, as it manages and monitors flight plans. The police, flight manager, or local supervision office are not responsible for this notification.

Exceeding the maximum allowed aircraft mass is not permissible and is essentially dangerous, as it seriously affects performance and safety. The other options are incorrect because they suggest exceptions or compensation, which are not allowed by regulations.

The basic empty mass includes the mass of the aircraft, all fixed ballast, unusable fuel, undrainable oil, engine coolant, and hydraulic fluid. It does not include crew, baggage, or usable fuel.